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Solutions of problems B
B. 3429. Let q=1+√52, and let f:N→N be a function, such that for all positive integers n,
|f(n)−qn|<1q.
Prove that f(f(n))= f(n)+n.
Solution. As \displaystyle \frac{1}{q\big|f(0)\big|">, obviously f(0)=0. For any other n, the value of f is a positive integer, otherwise f(n)=0<n would imply \displaystyle \frac{1}{q\big|f(n)-qn\big|=|-qn|"> and hence n<1q2<1, which is impossible. It is easy to check, furthermore, that q(q−1)=√5+12⋅√5−12=1. Thus for any natural number n,
|f(f(n))- f(n)-n| = |f (f(n))- qf(n)+(q-1) f(n)- q(q-1)n| =
= |f (f(n))- qf(n)+ (q-1) (f(n)-qn)|.
As the inequality |a+b|≤|a|+|b| holds for all real numbers a, b, the above absolute value can be at most
|f (f(n))-qf(n)|+ | (q-1) (f(n)-qn)|= |f(f(n))-qf(n)|+ (q-1) |f(n)-qn|,
which is less than 1q+(q−1)1q=1 according to the condition. Hence
|f(f(n))- f(n)-n|<1,
which can only happen if f(f(n))- f(n)-n=0, as f(f(n)), f(n) and n are integers.
G. Bóka, Szolnok